Pharmacist Licensure Exams Drug Applications from candidates who wish to sit for the licensing examinations are received by the Examination Unit which coordinates the preparation of test items, obtains examination centers, identifies invigilators and examiners, assesses examination scripts, and publishes results.
Licensing examinations for the various programs are held in February/March, June/July, August, and November/December every year.
Candidates who pass the licensing examination are issued a Professional Identification Number (PIN) and a certificate of registration. Those who pursue Auxiliary programs are issued with an Auxiliary Identification Number (AIN) and a certificate of registration.
The following are sampled questions for the Drugs papers.
Q1. The parasite responsible for causing malaria is
A. Female anopheles mosquito
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Bacteria
D. Virus
Q 2. What medicine is used for the prevention of malaria in pregnancy in Ghana?
A. Sulphadoxine pyrimethamine
B. Quinine
C. Doxycycline
D. Artermetherlumefantrine
Q 3. Aluminium containing antacids are known to cause
A. Constipation
B. Diarrhoea
C. Headache
D. Nausea
Q 4. Which of the following ingredients is useful in managing dry cough?
A. Guaifenesin
B. Carbocisteine
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Ammonium chloride
Q5. Which of the following is a sedating antihistamine?
I. Promethazine
II. Diphenhydramine
III. Cyproheptadine
IV. Loratadine
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Q6. Haematinics usually consists of all the following except
A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin B12
Q7. The following drugs belong to the antibacterial antibiotics class except
A. Amoxicillin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Metronidazole
Q8. Which antihistamine would you recommend to a taxi driver who complains of body itching?
A. Promethazine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Loratadine
Q9. Excipients found in liquid preparations include
A. Binding agent
B. Emulsifying agent
C. Disintegrating agent
D. Filler
Q10. Drugs with similar chemical structures bind to similar receptors and produce similar physiological effects
A. True
B. False
Q11. Reactions or consequences of medicines that are additional to the desired effect of the medicine when taken at the normal dose are
A. Side effects
B. Contraindication
C. Adverse drug reactions
D. Toxic effects
Q12. Excipients found in solid preparations include the following except
A. Cocoa butter
B. Disintegrating agent
C. Suspending agent
D. Filler
Q13. The following drugs are ideal drugs that can be taken during pregnancy except
A. Folic acid
B. Multivitamin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vitamin B-complex
Q14. Unexpected effects that vary from person to person may happen when certain people take certain medications
A. Side effects
B. Contraindication
C. Adverse drug reactions
D. None of the above
Q15. Pessaries are meant to be inserted into the
A. Vagina
B. Anus
C. Mouth
D. Rectum
Q16. Which of the following preparations will exert a systemic effect?
A. Lidocaine spray
B. Ibuprofen tablet
C. Miconazole oral gel
D. Triple action ointment
Q17. Emulsions are liquid preparations composed of
A. Fine solid powder and water
B. Large solid powder and water
C.Solid and oil
D. Water and oil
Q18. What preparation will you recommend for a 14-year-old child who is not eating properly and hence has lost weight
A. Promethazine tablets
B. Apetatrust tablets
C. Motilium tablets
D. Bioferon Syrup
Q19. Deficiency of thiamine causes
A. Night blindness
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Pellagra
D. Beriberi
Q20. The following are fat soluble vitamins except
A. Thiamine
B. Calciferol
C. Tocopherol
D. Retinol
Q21. The quantity of drug to be taken at a given time is
A. Dosage
B. Dose
C. Strength
D. Regimen
Q22. The following are classes of over-the-counter drugs except
A. Haematinics
B. Cough mixtures
C. Weak opioid analgesics
D. Antacids
Q23. Paracetamol toxicity mainly affects which organ?
A. Kidney
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Liver
Q24. Which of the following dosage forms contain alcohol?
A. Elixir
B. Suspension
C. Syrup
D. Pills
Q25. Otic preparations are applied to the
A. Eye
B. Ear
C. Nostril
D. Tongue
Q26. Which of the following is a brand or proprietary name?
A. Paracetamol syrup
B. Magnesium trisilicate suspension
C. Diclofenac injection
D. Lumetrust Suspension
Q27. Features of a valid prescription include all the following except
A. Is in indelible writing signed and dated by an approved prescriber
B. States the name and address of the person to whom treatment is being given
C. Has been already fully dispensed
D. States the name, address, and qualification of the person signing it
Q28. Two tablespoons are equal to
A. 10ml
B. 15ml
C. 20ml
D. 30ml
Q29. Which of the following is a generic name?
A. Trustzole 400
B. Coartem 80/480
C. Ibuprofen 400mg
D. Lumetrust DS
Q30. 1g is equivalent to
A. 10mg
B. B. 100mg
C. 1000mg
C. 10000mg
Q31. What is the meaning of prn on a prescription?
A. As needed
B. Now
C. In the morning
D. At bedtime
Q32. Which of the following correctly explains cc on a prescription?
A. Before meals
B. After meals
C. With food
D. In the evening
Q33. Which of the following correctly explains hs on a prescription?
A. As needed
B. Now
C. In the morning
D. At bedtime
Q34. Which of the following correctly explains a collar on a prescription?
A. Mouthwash
B. Eye wash
C. Ear wash
D. A glassful
Q35. Which of the following drugs is an NSAID?
A. Piroxicam
B. Dexamethasone
C. Prednisolone
D. Lorazepam
Q36. All the following are examples of weak opioids except?
A. Codeine
B. Dihydrocodeine
C. Tramadol
D. Pethidine
Q37. The maximum daily adult dose of acetaminophen is
A. 500mg
B. 1g
C. 4g
D. 8g
Q38. The following are NSAIDs except
A. Naprosyn
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Indomethacin
D. Codeine
Q39. The maximum daily adult dose of ibuprofen is
A. 800mg
B. 2.4g
C. 4g
D. 8g
Q40. The following can be used to manage pain caused by menstrual cramps except
A. Mefenamic acid
B. Hyoscine butyl bromide
C. Doxycycline
D. Drotaverine
Q41. The following drugs belong to the same class of medication except for
A. Metronidazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Nystatin
D. Clotrimazole
Q42. Which of the following is a corticosteroid?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Clobetasol
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Loratadine
Q43. Stimulant drugs should not be taken during the day.
A. True
B. False
Q44. The antibiotic ciprofloxacin is available as
A. Tablets
B. Otic solutions
C. Infusion
D.All the above
Q45. Which of the following drugs are commonly misused or abused?
A. Sleeping tablets
B. Cannabis
C. Antibiotics
D. All the above
Q46. What is the meaning of mane as seen on a prescription?
A. Morning
B. Evening
C. Shake
D. Up to
Q47. Which of the following viruses is implicated in causing diarrhea?
A. Norovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Coronavirus
D. (a) and (b)
Q48. Besides watery stools, which of these symptoms also may occur during diarrhea?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Bloating
C. Nausea
D. All of the above
Q49. Aspirin is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
A. Asthma
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Q50. The proprietary name of a drug is assigned by the…………………………………
A. Manufacturer
B. The Food and Drugs Authority Ghana
C. Pharmacy Council Ghana
D. Pharmaceutical society of Ghana
Q51. Which of the following auxiliary labels should always be placed on a prescription for an oral suspension?
A. “Discard after seven days”
B. “Store in a refrigerator”
C. “Shake well before use”
D. “Avoid intake with alcohol”
Q52. By which of the following routes are drugs administered directly into the bloodstream?
A. Oral route
B. Intravenous route
C. Rectal route
D. Sublingual route
Q53. Which of the following is classified as an over-the-counter (OTC) drug?
A. Amoxicillin oral
B. Tramadol
C. Cefuroxime tablets
D. Postinor 2
Q54. To become an MCA in Ghana
A. An individual must show proof of completing 6 months of training in an accredited MCA training institution, and pass the Ghana Medicine counter assistant certification examination.
B. An individual must show proof of completing 6 months of training in a non- accruedited MCA training institution, pass the Ghana medicine counter assistant certificate examination.
C. No 6 month training in an accredited institution is required
D. An individual must show proof of completing a 6 months training in an accredited MCA training institution. No qualifying examination is required.
Q55. A solid dosage form containing active and inactive ingredients and prepared either by compression or molding methods is a:
A. Capsule
B. Tablet
C. Suppository
D. Powder
Q56. Fluconazole is to Diflucan as Paracetamol is to _____________.
A. Entramol
B. Nurofen
C. Zinnat
D. Diflucan
Q57. A preparation of finely divided undissolved drugs dispersed in a liquid vehicle is
A. an elixir
B. a syrup
C. a suspension
D. a solution
Q58. Effective communication in pharmacy practice can be hindered by:
A. Language Barrier
B. Presence of third parties
C. Lack of Privacy
D. All of the above
Q59. A substance or a mixture of substances added to a tablet to facilitate its breakup after administration is a:
A. Disintegrating agent
B. Diluent
C. Binder
D. Emulsifying agent
Q60. A solid dosage form in which the drug substance is enclosed in either a hard or soft soluble container or a shell of a suitable form of gelatin is
A. Capsule
B. Pill
C. Tablet
D. Suppository
Q61. Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of cold sores?
A. Funbact A
B. Supirocin cream
C. Virest cream
D. Clotrimazole cream
Q62. Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies is carried out by;
A. The Food and drugs Authority Ghana
B. Pharmacy council
C. Pharmaceutical Society of Ghana
D. Ghana Standards board
Q63. A drug was source under the condition of “sales or return”. If an MCA discovers that the medication has expired, he or she should:
A. Dispense the drug if it expired within the last week
B. Discard the drug
C. Follow the manufacturer’s return policies
D. Dispense the drug at a discount price
Q64. An MCA answers the phone and the patient calling states that, after taking a medication she received from the pharmacy a few hours earlier, she is not feeling well and would like to know the side effects of the medication. The MCA should:
A. Tell the patient the side effects of the medication, since they are commonly known to all pharmacy personnel
B. Put the patient on hold and notify the pharmacist of the situation
C. Ask the patient to hold while he looks up the side effects in a reference book
D. Tell the patient to lie down and maybe the side effects will wear off soon
Q65. The Food and Drug Authority (FDA) regulates:
A. Prescribing of drugs by docors
B. The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C. Recommendations for prescribing
D. Pharmaceutical education
Q66. A doctor would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A. Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B. A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C. Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D. Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form
Q67. Which of these is an antihistamine?
A. Prednisolone
B. dexamethasone
C. Clobetasol
D. Chlorpheniramine
Q68. A teaspoon is equivalent to …………………………………………….
A. 5ml
B. 7.5ml
C. 10ml
D. 15ml
Q69. Elixirs, tinctures and liniments are all examples of………………………..
A. Syrups
B. Solutions
C. Gels
D. Suspensions
Q70. A formulation containing a water based vehicle and an active drug that is an oil is known as ………………………
A. Solution
B. Elixir
C. Emulsion
D. Gel
Q71. A list of goods or items a business will use in its normal operation is a (an)………………….
A. Purchasing
B. Inventory
C. Open formulary
D. Closed formulary
Q72. All the following are goals of inventory management EXCEPT;
A. to ensure that drugs are available when they are needed
B. to ensure drugs are kept in appropriate conditions
C. increase the shell life of pharmaceutical products
D. to ensure patient receive wholesome drugs
Q73. As an expiration date of returnable items approaches, the MCA should be aware that it must be …………………………….. before the expiration date passes
A. Returned to the manufacturer for credit
B. Dispensed
C. Used
D. Returned to the wholesaler for credit
Q74. A bar code on a product from a manufacturer …………………….
A. Indicates the medication’s price
B. Ensures the patient receives the correct medication
C. Keeps count of medication stored.
D. Includes the product’s FDA registration number
Q75. In receiving an order, it is important to be alert for drugs that are incorrectly picked, received, damaged, are outdated, or missing. Hence orders are reconciled
A. Once per month
B. Item by item
C. Every two years
D. Once per year
Q75. Rx Susp. Amoxil 250mg/5ml. Sig i tsp tid x 10/7. The amount of medication to be dispensed is;
A. 100ml
B. 150ml
C. 250ml
D. The amount to be dispensed is not indicated
Q77. Rx Susp. Amoxil 250mg/5ml. Sig i tsp tid x 10/7. The following auxiliary should be placed near the medication label:
A. Shake well and refrigerate
B. May cause drowsiness
C. Do not take with milk or other dairy products
D. Discard unused portions after 5 days
Q78. A purchase order number is:
A. A number that is used to identify the pharmacy
B. Is the same on all orders from a given pharmacy
C. Is assigned by the FDA
D. A number used to identify an order.
Q79. For the prescription prednisolone 5mg tab. Sig: 5 bid X 2/7, 4 bid x 2/7, 3 bid x 2/7, 2 bid x 2/7, 1bid x2/7, then stop. The number of tablets to be dispensed is;
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
Q80. Most drugs are kept at room temperature between
A. 59-86oC
B. 33-45oC
C. 20-25oC
D. 2-8oC
Q81. The temperature of a refrigerator in a pharmacy should generally be
A. 59-86oC
B. 33-45oC
C. 20-25oC
D. 2-8oC
Q82. A physician orders co-trimoxazole 480mg po bid x 1/52. You have on the shelf Septrin 240mg/5ml Volume: 100ml. How many ml is required for one dose?
A. 2.5ml
B. 5ml
C. 10ml
D. 15ml
Q83. The physician orders co-trimoxazole 480mg po bid x 1/52. You have on the shelf Septrin 240mg/5ml Volume: 100ml. How many ml is required to completely fill the prescription?
A. 35ml
B. 70ml
C. 140ml
D. 210ml
Q84. The first groups of pharmacy practitioners were known as ……………
A. Dispensers
B. Apothecaries
C. Pharmacist
D. Physicians
Q85. The FDA is required to
A. Ensure that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use
B. To monitor a drug after its marketed to ensure it works as intended
C. To monitor a drug for any adverse effects
D. All of the above
Q86. How many tablets should be dispensed if a prescription is written as follows: Tab Metronidazole ii t.i.d x5/7?
A. 10 tablets
B. 15 tablets
C. 30 tablets
D. 45 tablets
Q87. How many ml of medication is needed to last 8 days if the dose of medication is one and half t.s.p four times daily
A.240ml
B. 60ml
C. 80ml
D. 120ml
Q88. ______________________ are skills involving relationships between people
A. Computer skills
B. Data management skills
C. Transactional skills
D. Interpersonal skills
Q89. Good interpersonal skills include:
A. Making eye contact
B. Calling the customer by name
C. Listening Carefully
D. All of the above
Q90. Good hygiene is important for medicine counter assistants because of the interaction with other persons and the expectation of performing in _________ conditions.
A. Warm
B. Cold
C. Infection free
D. Sunny
Q91. The directions on a medication are: i gtt ou hs. This medication is:
A. an eye drop
B. dosed twice a day
C. taken in the morning
D. used by injection
Q92. For the Prescription: Glucophage 500mg ii BID x 90/7, how many tablets are dispensed?
A. 90
B. 180
C. 360
D. Not enough information is given to fill the prescription
Q93. Which of the following routes is least likely to give a systemic effect?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Rectal
D. Topical
Q94. The difference between the price the customer pays and the price the pharmacy for a product is called
A. Profit
B. Overhead
C. Margin
D. Mark-up
Q95. A medicine counter assistant certification must be renewed every
A. Three years
B. Year
C. Two years
D. Four years
Q96. While administering ophthalmic drops, why is it that installing two drops at a time is not recommended?
A. The eye only holds about 10 microliters
B. The second drop will be lost due to spillage
C. The average drop size is 50 microliters
D. The second drop will cause corneal abrasion
Q97. A medication order reads “Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID x 7/7”. What essential information is missing from this order?
A. Dose
B. Route of administration
C. Drug interactions
D. Timing
Q98. How many doses of amoxicillin 500mg can be drawn up from a 250ml bottle of amoxicillin 250mg/5ml oral suspension?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 25
D. 20
99. All the following are examples of PPEs except
A. Over all (Gown)
B. Face mask
C. Oxygen mask
D. Gloves.
Q100. All the following are examples of Class A medicines except
A .Amlodipine
B. Amoxicillin
C. Daonil (Glibenclamide)
D. Zestril (Lisinopril)
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