Midwifery Licensure: General Paper, Applications from candidates who wish to sit for the midwifery licensing examinations should solve these past question as this will help them prepare for the exams. The Examination Unit which coordinates the preparation of test items, obtain examination centers, identify invigilators and examiners, assess examination scripts and publish results.
Licensing examinations for the various programmes are held in February/March, June/July, August and November/December every year.
Candidates who pass the licensing examination are issued Professional Identification Number (PIN) and a certificate of registration. Those who pursue Auxiliary programmes are issued with Auxiliary Identification Number (AIN) and a certificate of registration.
The following are past questions for the Midwifery
Q 51. The Presumptive signs of pregnancy includes the following EXCEPT
Amenorrhoae.
Nausea and vomiting.
Uterine enlargement.
Q 52.You are discussing induction of labour in a woman with controlled hypertension at 39 weeks. She read online that if the induction fails, she will end up having a cesarean section and the risk of complications is higher after a long labour than if she had just planned a cesarean section. She asks you to schedule an elective cesarean instead. The most appropriate next step is
A. Refuse to perform a cesarean delivery.
B. Counsel the patient on the risks and benefits of vaginal delivery as well as cesarean section.
C. Schedule an elective cesarean section at 39 weeks as requested.
Q 53. Partograph use is contra-indicated in all the following EXCEPT
A. Ante partum haemorrhage.
B. Transverse lie.
C. Compound presentation.
Q 54. You are a midwife incharge of a facility when a client with Eclampsia developed magnesuim sulphate toxicity. Which of the following medications could be used in the management of this condition?
A. Mefenamic acid.
B. Soduim bicarbonate.
C. Calcuim gluconate.
Q 55. Madam Xoxoadzo a 34 year old G4P3AA reported at the clinic with lower abdominal pain and bleeding. Upon examination, cervix was patulous and product of conception could be seen at the cervix. Xoxoadzo may likely be suffering from which of the under listed abortions.
A. Missed.
B. Inevitable.
C. Complete.
RM PII-NMC Midwifery Past Questions And Answers March 2020
Midwifery Licensure Exams: General Paper Past Questions
Midwifery Licensure Exams: Paediatric–> High Risk Past Questions
Q 56. An 18 year old who is pregnant comes to the clinic with the complaint of amonorrhea and tingling sensation in the breast. Apart from amenorrhea, which of the following are all presumptive signs of pregnancy.
I. Morning sickness.
II. Quickening.
III. Irritability of the bladder.
IV. Presence of HCG in urine
A. I, III and IV.
B. II, III and IV.
C. I, II and III.
Q 57. The value of the joints of the pelvis during pregnancy is best during
A. Early cyesis/gestation.
B Third trimester.
C. First trimester.
Q 58. By convention, the Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD) is how many days after the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)?
A. 280.
B. 220.
C. 180.
Q 59. Ms. Lamisi Adams is a 20 year old G3P0 at 9 weeks gestation. She has a history of cerclage due to short cervix. She has a previous obstetric history of 30 weeks spontaneous vaginal delivery and a 23 week spontaneous vaginal delivery where both did not survive respectively, all on account of cervical incompetence. She is interested in cerclage placement for this pregnancy, to keep the pregnancy to term. When do you tell her is the best time for the placement of the cerclage?
A. 25 weeks gestation.
B. 13 weeks gestation.
C. 10 weeks gestation.
Q 60. Couples are advised to attend preconception clinic about months
before they wish to conceive?
A. 4.
B. 6.
C. 5.
Q 61. Madam Nadei walks into your antenatal clinic limping with wasting of muscles of the leg. Which of these clinical assessments of the pelvis will be of use to the midwife?
A. Observation.
B. Palpation.
C. History.
Q 62. At the labour ward you were managing a pregnant woman who has sickle cell disease with 7cm cervical dilatation. Which of the under-listed could be a precipitating factor for her developing crises?
A. Extreme temperature changes.
B. Immobility.
C. Social factors.
Q 63. You first delivered a mother of a bouncy baby girl. After the third stage you transfered her to the lying in ward. You then encouraged her to breast feed. What else would you teach or tell her to do?
A. Measure her urine till she is discharged.
B. Palpate uterus through abdomen every 15minutes for 2 hours.
C. Observe her perineal pad if she bleeds more.
Q 64. Baby Fusi is exposed at your unit and is in contact with cold surface, you quickly move the baby to a warm place. Which type of heat loss is the baby going through?
A. Conduction.
B. Evaporation.
C. Convection.
Q 65. A quick glance at a partograph gives the professional midwife a detailed information about progress of labour fetal condition as well as the maternal condition. The midwife is able to predict outcome of labour from the partograph. If a third cervical plotting is found to be closer to the lower line that runs across it can be interpreted as
A. Cervical dilatation is at the expected rate.
B. Labour is too rapid.
C. Labour is falling below expected rate.
Q 66. Madam Caroline Neequaye has been admitted for induction of labour. Which of the following hormones will be suitable for cervical ripening?
A. Oxytocin.
B. Syntometrine.
C. Prostaglandins.
Q 67. Which of the following activities should be recommended during pregnancy?
A. Swimming.
B. Hot yoga.
C. Stationary cycling.
Q 68. A client arrived at the labour ward with history of labour at 3:30pm. She reported that her membranes ruptured at 5:15am same day. You will document the ruptured membranes as
A. 5:15am.
B. 3:30pm.
C. 10hours 15minutes.
Q 69. The gestational age between 39 weeks through 40 weeks is termed
A. Full term.
B. Late term.
C. Post-term.
Q 70. Spasms of the neck muscle of the foetus could cause various presentations during labour. This includes
I. Face
II. Brow
III. Shoulder
A. II and III.
B. I and II.
C. I and III.
Q 71. During the performance of abdominal examination at the antenatal clinic certain techniques are used to examine the client. Which of the following technique is not used at the antenatal clinic.
A. Percussion.
B. Palpitation.
C. Auscultation.
Q 72. While monitoring a client with eclampsia, one of the following must be reported to the obstetrician gynecologist.
A. Urine output less than 30mls.
B. Urine output less than 50mls.
C. Urine output less than 40mls.
Q 73. A diabetic mother is ideally to be seen by a combined team which includes a physician and an obstetrician with interest in diabetes, a specialist midwife and a dietitian. The diabetic pregnant woman is to attend clinic fortnightly until weeks.
A. 26.
B. 28.
C. 24.
Q 74. Mrs Cecilia Kakamba G1P1 delivered 4 days per vaginum which was complicated by prolonged second stage of labour, lasting for 4 hours with prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours. She did not exhibit any evidence of infection at the time of delivery. She reported back to your facility complaining of low grade fever, chills, general malaise and uterine fundal tenderness. Her vital signs are stable. She is breast feeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Stop breastfeeding and start oral antibiotics.
B. Continue breastfeeding and start oral antibiotics.
C. Blood culture.
Q 75. A 25 year old G4P1+2 at 11 weeks gestation presents for her initial prenatal visit. Her past obstetrical history is significant for two early first trimester terminations. It is also significant for a subsequent spontaneous vaginal delivery at 32 weeks two years ago. Her greatest risk factor is which of the following?
A. History of abnormal pap’s Smear.
B. Prior preterm birth.
C. History of long term FP procedure.
Q 76. Health experts belief breast milk is the best nutritional choice for infants. Which of the following indicate the signs of readiness for breastfeeding in the newborn?
I. Mouth widely opened
II. Turns head upwards
III. Make slicking movements
IV. Begins to cry
A. I, II and III.
B. I and II.
C. II, III and IV.
Q 77 Madam Araba Vanoil, with 20 weeks gestation seeks advise on the forms of exercise during a long distance travel. Which of the under listed would you advise?
I. Deep breathing
II. Foot circling
III. Stretching lower limbs
IV. Contracting and relaxing muscle groups
A. I, II and IV.
B. II, III and IV.
C. I and II.
Q 78. First year students Midwives came to your ward and want to know the contraindications for induction of labour. Your response will be
A. Placental abruption.
B. Prolonged pregnancy.
C. Active genital herpes.
Q 79. A midwife delivered a breech facing away from the mother, with the left hand grasping the baby’s ankles from behind and the forefinger between the two. Which method did she apply?
A. Mauriceau – Smellie – Veit.
B. Louset Manoeuvre.
C. Burn’s Marshall.
Q 80. Fruit scented breadth during labour indicates…………..
A. Ketone bodies in urine.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Poor oral care.
Q 81. A 29-year-old P2 had a vaginal delivery followed by postpartum hemorrhage of 2.5 liters. She presents to you after 8 months with complaints that she has not restarted her Menstruation yet. She is bottle feeding and states she was unable to breastfeed due to inadequate milk supply. Her home pregnancy test is negative followed by a negative beta HCG level. Which of the following is the most likely reason for amenorrhoea?
A. Pregnancy.
B. Lactational Amenorrhea.
C. Sheehan’s Syndrome.
Q 82. Maame Adjoa an epileptic client with 32 weeks gestation on the ward is non complaint, she refuses to take her medication and takes no instruction from the midwife. The baby fetus is likely to suffer from the following effect;
A. Prematurity.
B. Asphyxia.
C. Abnormality.
Q 83. The Midwife prepares a primigravida against developing anxiety at the onset of labour by adopting one of these methods.
I. Developing a birth plan
II. Discussing specific fears
III. Touring the labour ward
IV. Visiting client at home
A. I, II and IV.
B. II, III and IV.
C. I, II and III.
Q 84. A woman at five weeks gestation presents with a history of severe nausea and vomiting. The first line of management of this condition is for her to eat.
A. Hot pepper soup with fried plantains.
B. Toast Cereal and crackers.
C. Fried hard yam with groundnuts.
Q 85. Madam Quashiga come to your facility with 8 cm cervical dilatation, decent was 4/5, contraction ranges between 35-42 seconds and 3 in 10 minutes. After 2 hours, the dilatation was still 8cm, decent 3/5, contraction was 4 in 10minutes lasting between 30- 55seconds with meconium stained liquor. FH was between 100 to110bpm. What is the possible diagnosis?
A. Fetal distress.
B. Obstructed labour.
C. Prolonged labour.
Q 86. Madam Yaa Kporti, 25 years old has just undergone gastric bypass surgery and presents to your clinic requesting contraception. Medical history is negative for hypertension and headache, and notable only for acne and irregular vaginal bleeding secondary to known uterine fibroids. She is mutually monogamous with one male partner. The BEST contraceptive method for this patient is:
A. Progestin-only contraceptive pill.
B. Jadelle Implant contraceptive.
C. Combination oral contraceptive pill.
Q 87. Madam Ama Animah, complained of lower abdominal pains since a week ago, she reported to her closed friend whose mother has a pharmacy shop to get some medications. The friends mother in turn asked her to report to one of the hospitals in their vicinity. Upon seeing the Dr. Some laboratory investigation were requested. All the underlisted would be carried out during a veneral disease research laboratory (VDRL) EXCEPT
A. Gonorrhoea.
B. Syphillis.
C. Rubella.
Q 88. The following are clinical signs of magnesium toxicity EXCEPT:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis.
B. Respiratory difficulties.
C. A feeling of flushing.
Q 89. One of the following conditions causes heartburns during pregnancy?
A. Relaxed oesophageal sphincter.
B. Slow emptying of the stomach.
C. Relaxed cardiac sphincter.
Q 90. Which of the following symptoms is the MOST common sign associated with uterine rupture?
A. Excessive vaginal bleeding.
B. Sub normal uterine pain.
C. Increased frequency of uterine contractions.
Q 91. Your patient is a 29 year old G4P3 with 34 weeks gestation. She is carrying dichorionic diamniotic twins. She has no past medical history and has never had surgery. Her foetus “A” is found to be growth restricted with 24 weeks. Foetus “B” is normally grown, with estimated fetal growth at 36 weeks. If the intrauterine growth restriction persists, the umbilical artery flows remain normal, and no further pregnancy complications develop. At how many weeks gestation should this patient be delivered?
A. 34 -35 weeks.
B. 38 -39 weeks.
C. 36 -37 weeks.
Q 92. Long term effects of poorly sutured episiotomy include the following EXCEPT:
A. Dysuria.
B. Rectocele.
C. Dyspareunia.
Q 93. You are the in-charge of ANC and have booked two previous caesarian sections for elective surgery. Which of the following can also be an indication for elective caesarean section?
A. Intra-uterine growth restriction.
B. Cord prolapse.
C. Uterine rupture.
Q 94. The midwife determines effectiveness of uterine contractions in second stage by observing……..
A. Interval onset and intensity of contractions.
B. The intensity, duration and frequency of contractions.
C. Strength, rhythm and pattern of contractions.
Q 95. As a newly qualified midwife delivering a set of twins, after the first twin, the next thing to do is to
A. Give oxytocin drip.
B. Rapture the 2nd twin membranes.
C. Perform vagina examination.
Q 96. What is the most common cause of low milk supply in women attempting to breastfeed?
A. Inadequate breast stimulation.
B. Poor infant feeding behaviors.
C. Low milk production.
Q 97. You are a midwife preparing to perform a physical examination on a post partum client. What statement BEST explains why the midwife must wear gloves during this examination?
A. Gloves protect the client against the midwives cold hands.
B. Gloves may protect the client against infections.
C. Gloves is used as a standard precaution in infection prevention.
Q 98. The following are all probable signs of pregnancy EXCEPT:
I. Bluing of vagina.
II. Fetal parts palpated.
III. Pulsation of fornices.
IV. Presence of HCG in blood
A. II, III and IV.
B. I, III and IV.
C. I, II and III.
Q 99. Mrs. Mallet has been in labour for 5hours and her cervical dilatation is 7cm, head descent 3/5, contractions 3 in 10 lasting 40sec. As a midwife in a health center, what will be your responsibility towards Mrs. Mallet?
A. Refer client to next level.
B. Monitor with partograph.
C. Infuse oxytocin 2.5units in 500mls Normal Saline.
Q 100. During afternoon shift at the Elimankyere CHPS compound, a non-attendant client walked in with bleeding at 32 weeks gestation. What would be your initial action?
A. Set up IV infusion and refer.
B. Pass urethral catheter and refer.
C. Perform vaginal examination and refer.
